Ye Do Therefore Greatly Err

I thought after a little more study I would re-examine the scripture of Jesus' reply to the sadducees concerning resurrection and the sanctity of marriage, just to show that as Christ stated to his followers that divorce is permitted only because of the "hardness of our hearts" and that concerning divorce "in the beginning it was not so." there is the converse which is just as likely from boolean logic that it is true that eternal marriage is and was most certainly true from the beginning. However, Jesus reply to the sadducees would at first glance preclude this altogether. We now take a closer look, (with some prophetic content mixed in!)

Jesus references heptads, with the first six elements reserved for physical man, and the rest element of sabbath as "the last day of the week". The rest or "unity of the seven cycle" that is the underlying truth that was intended for man is eternal despite all man's physical efforts to direct his own steps. The sabbath or rest is the creator's intent for man before he is born and is the eternal reward after for those men that qualify by election into Christ's body (spiritual) Israel.

We would expect that as God rested on the seventh day, and from the scripture Adam and Eve had received that spiritual rest of God until they fell and were ejected from Eden, (It being the creators intent - that the sabbath was made for man, and not man for the sabbath.) Then the rest in the (unity of the) heptad both preceded, and always continues and also will be the rest of God that we will inherit as His chosen people. That lasting rest is His intent from the beginning. Adam and Eve his wife had a marriage meant to continue in rest - that the marriage of the lamb continues is that which we prophetically expect. However we may also expect that as inheriting the same rest, we ourselves have some continuation in that original reward, because the intent of God was ever as such. (It is not good that man be alone - even if he originally dwelt in the presence of God.) We must see in the scriptures the same sabbath rest as existing before, today and forever after is a constant to whomsoever inherits it in Jesus Christ.

In Matthew's Gospel we find the verses;

Now we should state that the law of marriage concerning the first brother, whose marriage rights to seed continue by virtue of his brother's service under the law are a continuation of the whole law concerning marriage, and this continues past the moment of his death. We reserve the service that his brothers do him in providing offspring (or not) as if they were the ministers of the law and of their (the first) brother, rendering them as the "six angels" in the resurrection, whilst the "dead" husband, as Jesus clearly states is alive in the resurrection and he as the seventh has attained that rest. God, is God of the living, and the law is for the first brother, not the six who do him service. (The sin of Onan is indeed sin, according to the perversion of the law as not performed in service. Such "Onanism" is adultery.)

So, there doesn’t appear then to be a clear dividing line that marriage ends in heaven at all, indeed it actually appears to continue. We have further verses concerning Jesus' reply. (Remember that only the first brother in heaven is clearly "alive to God" and His six brethren are not married to his wife, neither are they certain to obtain the resurrection themselves - only the first brother has the divine authority to require any such seed, being already "saved" and by initial assumption, worthy of eternal life as he truly has it already.)

Examining Luke then we have the verses;

We share the exact same argument as before, with the requirement in verse 35 that only those worthy to obtain the resurrection attain it - and are no longer able to marry or are to be given in marriage. Now, does Jesus state this concerning the ministration of the law by His brothers as ministers (angels) of righteousness, or including the first brother also whose marriage rights continue in the resurrection?

Clearly the first brother is worthy to obtain the resurrection by assumption, yet this is not so for the remaining six brothers, at least in certainty - there is no entrance into heaven by virtue of being married to the right person, and certainly not by providing seed for God's obedient servant in the resurrection, the first brother.

In stating that the remnant of that family line on earth neither marry or are given in marriage, Jesus replies on the basis that there is no alteration of the marriage to the first brother, and indeed, marriage is preserved as it is and was intended from the very beginning.

Jesus states once more that they can not die again, why? Because, none of the six brothers have any right to the wife of the first brother, irrespective of whether marriage truly continues or does not. Only those alive in the resurrection are alive to God, God is God of the living that are with Him, and we assert that the first brother is actually still alive, and is therefore married to his wife! Else, Jesus would have answered differently altogether - for He has left His meaning intact - the alive can marry, and the sadducees greatly err. (As opposed to simply erring, - Jesus put forth the superlative for truth's sake and for that of the resurrection.)

That the children of this world marry and are given in marriage asserts that the law and obligations of marriage do indeed continue, but that for those that are not married (the six brothers) this is not so - for they are the servants of God; and angels, on the whole are not married to the children of this world - I say not on the whole because they are our brethren in Christ through the marriage of the lamb.

Jesus answered them slyly!

Now, if Jesus indeed spoke of marriage being eternal from the beginning, it is a hard saying for them as they (His disciples) knew their own hearts. Yet now we have unlocked the meaning of Jesus sly similitude and of us, (perhaps) at least, it may be said we have received this saying, (that is we to whom it was given!)

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